Bathsheba

In 2nd Samuel 11 the powerful King David participated in adultery with Bathsheba who cheated on her husband, who was later killed. I think the writer wrote it like this because, they were trying to point all the blame on David. David's sin with Bathsheba in a way that placed the guilt squarely upon David, and not upon Bathsheba. This was all of David's doing, not due to temptation or seduction on Bathsheba's part, but because of arrogance, lust, and greed on David's part. David had no desire for Bathsheba to become his wife, or even to carry on an adulterous affair with her. He sought one night's pleasure, and she went home. That was that, or so it seemed. But then David received word from Bathsheba that this one night resulted in Bathsheba's pregnancy. David was desperate and tried to attempt to cover up his sin with Bathsheba. As we all know, it did not work, and it only made matters worse. The writer wrote it this way to make her seem innocence than what she was.

The reason Bathsheba is ignored in 2nd Samuel is because this chapter is focus on King David and his sins. I remember the story of David and Bathsheba and we was told to thing of her as a bad seductress or co-conspirator, and therefore transforming David from perpetrator to victim. She is usually referred to as Uriah's wife, or "that woman" or later David's wife. She doesn't speak, except the three words, "I am pregnant."

One of the tragic aspects of this story is that the sequence of sin in David's life does not end with his adulterous union with Bathsheba. It leads to a deceptive plot to make her husband Uriah appear to be the father of David's child with Bathsheba and culminates in David's murder of Uriah and his marriage to Uriah's wife, Bathsheba.

I was reading over 2nd Samuel and 1st kings over and over again and I came to the conclusion that this is all King David Fault because, if any blame at all could be placed on Bathsheba, it would be because "she came". Yet, could she have defied the King? I Notice